In Matthew, Jesus declares, “Whoever is not with me is against me.” In Mark, he says,“Whoever is not against us is for us.” Did he say both things? Could hemean both things? How can both be true at once? Or is it possible thatone of the Gospel writers got things switched around?

In Matthew, Jesus declares, “Whoever is not with me is against me.” In Mark, he says,“Whoever is not against us is for us.” Did he say both things? Could hemean both things? How can both be true at once? Or is it possible thatone of the Gospel writers got things switched around?

– Bart D. Ehrman –

Jesus

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